1
Security and Risk Management
~15% of exam · Day 1–21.1 — CIA Triad, DAD Triad & Additional Security Concepts
CIA Triad
- Confidentiality — Preventing unauthorized disclosure of information. Threats: eavesdropping, social engineering, shoulder surfing. Controls: encryption (AES-256, TLS), access controls (RBAC, MAC), data classification, steganography, secure channels.
- Integrity — Ensuring data accuracy and trustworthiness; preventing unauthorized modification. Threats: MITM, malware, unauthorized changes. Controls: hashing (SHA-256, SHA-3), digital signatures, version control, checksums, non-repudiation mechanisms, input validation.
- Availability — Ensuring timely, reliable access for authorized users. Threats: DDoS, hardware failure, natural disasters. Controls: redundancy (RAID, clustering), backups, failover, load balancing, SLAs, capacity planning.
DAD Triad (Opposite)
- Disclosure — Opposite of Confidentiality (unauthorized access to information).
- Alteration — Opposite of Integrity (unauthorized modification).
- Destruction / Denial — Opposite of Availability (preventing access).
Additional Security Concepts
- Authenticity — Verifying the identity of users and the origin of messages.
- Non-repudiation — Ensuring a party cannot deny an action (digital signatures provide this).
- Accountability — Tracing actions to a specific individual (requires identification, authentication, and auditing/logging).
- Privacy — Right of an individual to control their personal information.
- Safety — Protecting people and the physical environment from harm.
Exam Tip: The CIA triad is the foundation of ALL security decisions. Every control maps back to one or more of these three goals. If a question is unclear, ask yourself "Does this protect confidentiality, integrity, or availability?"
1.2 — Security Governance Principles
Governance vs. Management
- Governance — Strategic direction set by the board/senior leadership. Ensures security aligns with business objectives, evaluates risk appetite, establishes accountability.
- Management — Operational execution of governance directives by CISO, security team, and IT staff.
Organizational Roles
| Role | Responsibility |
|---|---|
| Board of Directors | Ultimate accountability for security; sets risk appetite; fiduciary duty |
| CEO | Overall organizational responsibility; delegates to CISO |
| CISO / CSO | Security strategy, policy, budget, compliance, risk management |
| Data Owner | Senior management; classifies data; determines access |
| Data Custodian | IT operations; implements and maintains controls (backups, ACLs) |
| Data Steward | Ensures data quality, metadata, and governance standards |
| Security Administrator | Implements security settings, manages user accounts, monitors |
| Auditor | Independent assessment of security controls and compliance |
Due Care vs. Due Diligence
- Due Care — Doing the right thing; taking reasonable steps (implementing a firewall, security policy).
- Due Diligence — Verifying that due care was properly applied; ongoing assessment (audits, pen tests, risk assessments).
Frameworks: COBIT (governance focus), NIST CSF (risk-based framework), ISO 27001/27002 (ISMS), ITIL (service management), COSO (internal controls), TOGAF (enterprise architecture).
1.3 — Compliance, Laws, Regulations & Intellectual Property
Legal Systems
- Civil Law (Code Law) — Based on written codes/statutes (most of continental Europe, Japan, Latin America).
- Common Law — Based on precedent/case law (US, UK, Canada, Australia).
- Religious Law — Based on religious texts (Sharia law in some countries).
- Customary Law — Based on regional customs and traditions.
U.S. Laws & Regulations
| Law | Focus | Key Points |
|---|---|---|
| HIPAA | Healthcare | PHI protection; Privacy Rule + Security Rule; Business Associate Agreements |
| SOX | Financial | Public company financial reporting integrity; CEO/CFO personal liability; Section 404 |
| GLBA | Financial | Financial institutions must protect NPI; Financial Privacy Rule; Safeguards Rule |
| FISMA | Federal IT | Federal systems security; NIST standards mandate; ATO process |
| FERPA | Education | Student record privacy; parental rights transfer at age 18 |
| COPPA | Children | Online privacy for children under 13; verifiable parental consent |
| CFAA | Computer Crime | Unauthorized access to computers; federal crime statute |
| ECPA | Communications | Electronic communications privacy; wiretap restrictions |
| DMCA | Copyright | Digital copyright protection; anti-circumvention provisions |
| EEA | Trade Secrets | Economic Espionage Act; theft of trade secrets is federal crime |
International Regulations
- GDPR (EU) — 72-hour breach notification; right to erasure ("right to be forgotten"); data portability; consent must be explicit; DPO required; fines up to 4% global revenue or €20M. Lawful bases: consent, contract, legal obligation, vital interests, public task, legitimate interests.
- PIPEDA (Canada) — 10 fair information principles; meaningful consent required.
- LGPD (Brazil) — Similar to GDPR; covers Brazilian residents' data.
- POPI Act (South Africa) — Data protection act; 8 conditions for lawful processing.
Intellectual Property
| Type | Protects | Duration | Registration |
|---|---|---|---|
| Copyright | Expression of ideas (books, code, music) | Life + 70 years (individual); 95 years (corporate) | Automatic upon creation |
| Trademark | Brand identifiers (logos, names, slogans) | Renewable every 10 years (indefinite) | Registration recommended |
| Patent | Inventions / processes | 20 years from filing | Must file with patent office |
| Trade Secret | Proprietary business info | No expiration (if kept secret) | No registration; must actively protect |
Import/Export Controls
- Wassenaar Arrangement — 42 nations; controls export of dual-use technologies including encryption.
- ITAR — International Traffic in Arms Regulations; defense-related items.
- EAR — Export Administration Regulations; commercial dual-use items.
1.4 — Risk Management Framework & Risk Analysis
Risk Terminology
- Asset — Anything of value (people, data, hardware, reputation, processes).
- Threat — Potential cause of an unwanted event (hacker, earthquake, employee error).
- Threat Agent / Source — The entity that carries out a threat.
- Vulnerability — A weakness that can be exploited by a threat.
- Risk — The likelihood that a threat will exploit a vulnerability and cause impact. Risk = Threat × Vulnerability × Impact.
- Exposure — The potential loss when a threat exploits a vulnerability.
- Countermeasure / Safeguard — A control that reduces risk.
- Residual Risk — Risk remaining after controls are applied. Total Risk − Controls = Residual Risk.
- Risk Appetite — The amount of risk an organization is willing to accept.
- Risk Tolerance — Acceptable variation from risk appetite.
NIST Risk Management Framework (SP 800-37)
- 1. Prepare — Establish context and priorities.
- 2. Categorize — Categorize system based on impact (FIPS 199: Low/Moderate/High).
- 3. Select — Choose appropriate controls from NIST SP 800-53.
- 4. Implement — Deploy selected controls.
- 5. Assess — Evaluate control effectiveness.
- 6. Authorize — Authorize system operation (ATO — Authorization to Operate).
- 7. Monitor — Continuously monitor for changes and effectiveness.
Quantitative Risk Analysis
| Term | Formula | Meaning |
|---|---|---|
| AV | — | Asset Value |
| EF | — | Exposure Factor (% of asset lost, 0–100%) |
| SLE | AV × EF | Single Loss Expectancy ($ loss per event) |
| ARO | — | Annualized Rate of Occurrence (frequency/year) |
| ALE | SLE × ARO | Annualized Loss Expectancy ($/year) |
| Cost-Benefit | ALE(before) − ALE(after) − Cost | Value of implementing a control |
Example: Server worth $100,000 (AV). Fire would destroy 60% (EF=0.6). SLE = $60,000. Fire expected once every 10 years (ARO=0.1). ALE = $6,000/year. A suppression system costing $4,000/year that reduces EF to 10% → new ALE = $1,000. Benefit = $6,000 − $1,000 − $4,000 = $1,000 net benefit.
Qualitative Risk Analysis
- Uses subjective judgment: High/Medium/Low ratings in a risk matrix.
- Delphi Technique — Anonymous expert opinions gathered iteratively until consensus.
- Brainstorming — Group identification of risks.
- Scenario Analysis — Examining specific "what-if" situations.
- Risk Register — Document tracking identified risks, owners, likelihood, impact, and treatment.
Risk Treatment / Response Options
| Option | Action | Example |
|---|---|---|
| Mitigate / Reduce | Implement controls to reduce likelihood or impact | Install firewall, encrypt data |
| Transfer / Share | Shift risk to third party | Buy insurance, outsource to MSP |
| Accept | Acknowledge and absorb (must be management decision) | Risk within risk appetite |
| Avoid | Eliminate the activity causing risk | Discontinue a risky product line |
| Reject / Ignore | Deny the risk exists | NEVER VALID — always wrong on exam |
Control Types
| By Function | Description | Example |
|---|---|---|
| Preventive | Stops incident before it occurs | Firewall, encryption, training |
| Detective | Identifies incident during or after | IDS, audit logs, CCTV |
| Corrective | Fixes damage after incident | Patching, restoring backups |
| Deterrent | Discourages potential attackers | Warning banners, fences, policies |
| Compensating | Alternative control when primary isn't feasible | Monitoring when separation of duties isn't possible |
| Recovery | Restores to normal operations | DR site, backup restoration |
| Directive | Mandates behavior | Policies, regulations, standards |
| By Implementation | Examples |
|---|---|
| Administrative / Managerial | Policies, procedures, training, background checks, risk assessment |
| Technical / Logical | Firewalls, IDS, encryption, access controls, antivirus |
| Physical / Operational | Locks, fences, guards, CCTV, mantraps, fire suppression |
1.5 — Security Policies, Standards, Baselines, Guidelines & Procedures
Policy Hierarchy (most to least authoritative)
| Document | Mandatory? | Description |
|---|---|---|
| Policy | Yes | High-level management intent; approved by senior leadership. Types: Regulatory (compliance), Advisory (expected behavior), Informative (general info) |
| Standard | Yes | Specific mandatory requirements (e.g., "All passwords must be 14+ characters with MFA") |
| Baseline | Yes | Minimum security configuration for a system type (e.g., CIS Benchmarks, DISA STIGs) |
| Guideline | No | Recommended best practices (not mandatory but strongly suggested) |
| Procedure | Yes | Step-by-step instructions for tasks (e.g., "How to reset a password") |
Personnel Security
- Separation of Duties (SoD) — No single person controls all critical functions. Prevents fraud.
- Dual Control — Two people must act together to complete a critical action (e.g., two keys for safe).
- Job Rotation — Employees rotate roles; detects fraud, cross-trains staff.
- Mandatory Vacations — Force employees to take time off; allows others to detect irregularities.
- Least Privilege — Minimum access needed to perform duties.
- Need-to-Know — Access requires business justification even with clearance.
- NDA (Non-Disclosure Agreement) — Legal contract protecting confidential information.
- AUP (Acceptable Use Policy) — Defines acceptable use of organizational resources.
- Termination Procedures — Disable access immediately; exit interview; return of assets; escort.
1.6 — Business Continuity Planning (BCP) & Disaster Recovery
BCP vs. DRP
- BCP — Focuses on maintaining business operations during a disruption (proactive, strategic).
- DRP — Focuses on restoring IT infrastructure and data after a disaster (reactive, tactical).
- BCP is the umbrella; DRP is a component of BCP.
BCP Process (NIST SP 800-34)
- 1. Project Initiation — Senior management sponsorship (critical!); define scope; BCP team formation.
- 2. Business Impact Analysis (BIA) — Identify critical business functions; quantify impact of disruptions; determine recovery priorities.
- 3. Recovery Strategy Development — Select recovery approaches for each critical function.
- 4. Plan Design & Development — Document procedures, roles, communication plans.
- 5. Implementation & Testing — Deploy and test the plan regularly.
- 6. Maintenance — Update as business changes; annual review minimum.
Critical: Senior management support is the MOST important factor in BCP success. Without it, the plan will lack funding, authority, and organizational commitment. This is a frequently tested concept.
BIA Key Metrics
| Metric | Definition | Who Determines? |
|---|---|---|
| MTD / MAD | Maximum Tolerable Downtime — longest a function can be down before unacceptable damage | Management / BIA |
| RTO | Recovery Time Objective — target time to restore a system/function | Must be ≤ MTD |
| RPO | Recovery Point Objective — maximum acceptable data loss (measured in time before disruption) | Business requirements |
| WRT | Work Recovery Time — time to verify restored systems and catch up on transactions | RTO + WRT ≤ MTD |
| MTBF | Mean Time Between Failures — average uptime between failures | Hardware reliability |
| MTTR | Mean Time To Repair — average time to restore after a failure | Support/engineering |
Test Types (least to most disruptive)
| Test | Description | Disruption |
|---|---|---|
| Checklist Review | Distribute plan for review; individuals verify their sections | None |
| Tabletop Exercise | Key personnel walk through scenario in a meeting room | None |
| Walkthrough / Structured | Team members physically walk through steps | Minimal |
| Simulation | Practice response to a specific scenario (no actual failover) | Low |
| Parallel Test | Activate recovery site while primary stays running | Moderate |
| Full Interruption | Shut down primary; operate from backup site | High (risky) |
1.7 — Threat Modeling, Supply Chain Risk & Security Awareness
Threat Modeling Methodologies
| Model | Focus | Details |
|---|---|---|
| STRIDE | Threat categories | Spoofing, Tampering, Repudiation, Information Disclosure, DoS, Elevation of Privilege (Microsoft) |
| DREAD | Risk rating | Damage, Reproducibility, Exploitability, Affected Users, Discoverability (1-10 each) |
| PASTA | Risk-centric | 7-stage Process for Attack Simulation and Threat Analysis |
| VAST | Agile integration | Visual, Agile, Simple Threat modeling; separate app and infra models |
| Attack Trees | Goal-oriented | Tree structure showing ways to achieve an attack goal |
| MITRE ATT&CK | Tactics/Techniques | Knowledge base of adversary behavior; maps tactics to techniques |
Supply Chain Risk Management (SCRM)
- Assess third-party vendors: SOC 2 reports, questionnaires, on-site audits.
- SLAs with security requirements; right-to-audit clauses.
- Hardware/software supply chain integrity: verify firmware, use trusted suppliers, code signing.
- SBOM (Software Bill of Materials) — inventory of software components.
- NIST SP 800-161: Supply Chain Risk Management Practices.
- Fourth-party risk — your vendor's vendors also pose risk.
(ISC)² Code of Ethics
- Canon I: Protect society, the common good, necessary public trust, and the infrastructure.
- Canon II: Act honorably, honestly, justly, responsibly, and legally.
- Canon III: Provide diligent and competent service to principals.
- Canon IV: Advance and protect the profession.
Priority Order: If canons conflict, they are prioritized I → II → III → IV. Society always comes first, then honesty, then your employer, then the profession.
Security Awareness & Training
- Awareness — For everyone; "what" to be aware of (phishing, passwords, physical security).
- Training — Role-based; "how" to perform security tasks (admins, developers, incident responders).
- Education — Career development; "why" — deep understanding (CISSP, CISM, degrees).
- Social engineering defenses: phishing simulations, vishing awareness, tailgating prevention, pretexting recognition.
- Metrics: phishing click rates, incident reporting rates, policy acknowledgment rates, training completion.
Domain 1 — Practice Questions (10)
Q1. A company's web server was taken offline by a DDoS attack. Which element of the CIA triad was primarily affected?
Availability is affected because authorized users cannot access the web server. DDoS attacks target availability by overwhelming system resources.
Q2. What is the MOST critical factor for the success of a Business Continuity Plan?
Senior management support is the most critical success factor for BCP. Without executive sponsorship, the plan will lack funding, authority, and organizational buy-in.
Q3. An asset valued at $500,000 has an exposure factor of 40% and the threat occurs twice per year. What is the ALE?
SLE = AV × EF = $500,000 × 0.40 = $200,000. ALE = SLE × ARO = $200,000 × 2 = $400,000.
Q4. Which (ISC)² Code of Ethics canon takes the HIGHEST priority?
Canon I — protecting society — always takes priority. If there's a conflict between protecting society and serving your employer (Canon III), society wins.
Q5. Which risk response involves eliminating the activity that introduces the risk?
Risk avoidance eliminates the activity or technology that causes the risk entirely, such as deciding not to collect a certain type of sensitive data.
Q6. Under GDPR, a data breach must be reported to the supervisory authority within what timeframe?
GDPR requires notification to the supervisory authority within 72 hours of becoming aware of a personal data breach, unless the breach is unlikely to result in a risk to rights and freedoms.
Q7. Which type of control is an example of a "compensating" control?
A compensating control is an alternative measure used when the primary control is not feasible. Enhanced monitoring compensates for the inability to implement separation of duties.
Q8. What type of intellectual property protection would apply to a company's proprietary algorithm for data analysis?
A proprietary algorithm kept confidential is best protected as a trade secret. While a patent could also apply, trade secret protection lasts indefinitely (as long as secrecy is maintained) and doesn't require public disclosure. The answer depends on context — if the company keeps it secret, trade secret is the best answer.
Q9. In the Delphi technique, what is the key characteristic?
The Delphi technique uses anonymous expert feedback collected over multiple rounds until consensus is reached, preventing groupthink and dominance by strong personalities.
Q10. Which BCP test type involves activating the recovery site while the primary site remains operational?
A parallel test activates the recovery site and processes data in parallel with the primary site, validating recovery capability without risking production operations.
2
Asset Security
~10% of exam · Day 32.1 — Data Classification, Categorization & Ownership
Classification Levels
| Government (Military) | Commercial / Private | Sensitivity |
|---|---|---|
| Top Secret | Confidential / Proprietary | Highest — grave damage |
| Secret | Private | Serious damage |
| Confidential | Sensitive | Damage |
| Unclassified | Public | No damage expected |
Data Roles (Detailed)
- Data Owner — Senior/executive management. Accountable for data classification, determining who can access, approving access requests, ensuring appropriate protection. They OWN the liability.
- Data Custodian — IT operations. Implements controls defined by the owner: backups, encryption, access permissions, patching. Day-to-day maintenance.
- Data Steward — Ensures data quality, accuracy, metadata standards, and compliance with governance rules.
- Data Controller (GDPR) — Organization that determines WHY and HOW personal data is processed.
- Data Processor (GDPR) — Third party that processes data on behalf of the controller (e.g., cloud provider, payroll company).
- Data Subject — The individual whose personal data is being collected/processed.
- System Owner — Responsible for the overall system (hardware + software) that processes data.
Exam Tip: The Data OWNER determines classification. The Data CUSTODIAN implements protection. The owner is always from management (not IT).
Asset Classification Process
- 1. Identify assets → 2. Classify based on sensitivity/value → 3. Label/mark → 4. Handle per classification → 5. Declassify/destroy when appropriate.
- Classification should be based on the HIGHEST sensitivity of any data element within the asset.
2.2 — Data States, Lifecycle & Handling
Three States of Data
| State | Description | Protection Controls |
|---|---|---|
| Data at Rest | Stored on disk, tape, cloud storage, database | Full-disk encryption (BitLocker, LUKS), database TDE, file-level encryption, access controls |
| Data in Transit | Moving across networks (LAN, WAN, internet) | TLS 1.3, IPSec VPN, SSH, SFTP, HTTPS, WPA3 |
| Data in Use | Being processed in memory/CPU | Process isolation, memory encryption, Intel SGX/TDX, homomorphic encryption, secure enclaves |
Data Lifecycle
- Create / Collect — Classify at creation; apply labels; determine ownership.
- Store — Encrypt; access controls; backups; physical security.
- Use — Process isolation; least privilege; monitoring.
- Share / Transfer — Encryption in transit; DLP; data sharing agreements.
- Archive — Long-term storage; integrity verification; retention policies; encryption.
- Destroy — Proper sanitization based on classification level.
Data Destruction & Remanence
| Method | Description | Use Case |
|---|---|---|
| Clearing | Overwriting with patterns (DoD 5220.22-M: 7 passes) | Internal reuse of media |
| Purging / Sanitizing | Degaussing (magnetic fields), crypto-erasure | Media leaving organization |
| Destruction | Physical: shredding, incineration, pulverizing, dissolving | Highest-classified media; end of life |
Crypto-shredding: Destroy the encryption keys to render encrypted data permanently unrecoverable. Especially effective in cloud environments where physical destruction isn't possible.
Data Remanence — Residual data remaining on media after deletion. Simply deleting files or formatting doesn't remove data — it only removes the pointer. Proper sanitization is required.
2.3 — Privacy Protection & Data Loss Prevention
OECD Privacy Principles (Foundation for GDPR, PIPEDA, etc.)
- Collection Limitation — Collect only necessary data; obtain consent.
- Data Quality — Keep data accurate, complete, and up-to-date.
- Purpose Specification — State the purpose at time of collection.
- Use Limitation — Use data only for stated purpose.
- Security Safeguards — Protect data with reasonable security measures.
- Openness — Be transparent about data practices.
- Individual Participation — Allow individuals to access and correct their data.
- Accountability — Data controller is accountable for compliance.
De-identification Techniques
| Technique | Description | Reversible? |
|---|---|---|
| Anonymization | Irreversibly removes all PII; cannot re-identify | No |
| Pseudonymization | Replaces identifiers with pseudonyms; reversible with key | Yes (with key) |
| Tokenization | Replaces sensitive data with non-sensitive tokens; mapping in secure vault | Yes (with vault) |
| Data Masking | Obscures data (e.g., XXX-XX-1234); static or dynamic | No (static) / Yes (dynamic) |
| Generalization | Reduces precision (exact age → age range) | No |
| Perturbation | Adds noise/random changes to data | No |
Data Loss Prevention (DLP)
- Network DLP — Monitors data in transit across the network (email, web, FTP).
- Endpoint DLP — Monitors data on endpoints (USB, clipboard, print, local save).
- Cloud DLP — Monitors data in cloud storage and SaaS applications.
- Detection methods: content inspection (regex, keywords), context-aware (who, where, when), exact data matching, fingerprinting.
- Actions: alert, block, quarantine, encrypt, watermark.
Data Retention & Scoping
- Retention policies define how long data must be kept (regulatory requirements vary by industry).
- Scoping — Determining which controls apply to a specific system or data set.
- Tailoring — Customizing baseline controls to fit organizational needs.
- NIST SP 800-53 — Catalog of security controls for federal systems.
Domain 2 — Practice Questions (10)
Q1. Who is ultimately responsible for determining the classification of data?
The Data Owner (senior management) determines classification. The custodian implements the controls, but classification is an ownership decision.
Q2. Which data destruction method is MOST appropriate for destroying classified data on magnetic hard drives?
Degaussing uses a strong magnetic field to destroy data on magnetic media. Reformatting and deleting only remove pointers, not actual data. Defragmenting reorganizes data, doesn't destroy it.
Q3. An organization replaces customer SSNs with random values stored in a secure vault. This technique is called:
Tokenization replaces sensitive data with non-sensitive tokens. A secure vault maintains the mapping, allowing de-tokenization when needed.
Q4. Which of the following protects data being processed in memory?
Secure enclaves like Intel SGX protect data in use (being processed in memory). TLS protects data in transit, and full-disk encryption protects data at rest.
Q5. Under GDPR, an organization that determines the purpose and means of processing personal data is called a:
The Data Controller determines the purpose and means of processing personal data under GDPR. The Data Processor processes data on behalf of the controller.
Q6. Destroying encryption keys to make encrypted data unrecoverable is known as:
Crypto-shredding (cryptographic erasure) destroys encryption keys, making encrypted data permanently unrecoverable without needing to physically destroy the media.
Q7. Which DLP deployment monitors data being copied to USB drives?
Endpoint DLP runs on user devices and monitors local actions like copying to USB, printing, and screen captures.
Q8. A document contains both Secret and Unclassified sections. How should the overall document be classified?
A document is classified at the HIGHEST level of any data it contains. Since it contains Secret data, the entire document must be treated as Secret.
Q9. Which OECD privacy principle requires that data only be used for the purpose stated at the time of collection?
Use Limitation states that data should only be used for the purpose specified at collection. Purpose Specification requires stating the purpose, while Use Limitation enforces adherence to it.
Q10. Data remanence is BEST described as:
Data remanence is residual data that persists on storage media even after deletion or formatting. Proper sanitization (clearing, purging, or destruction) is needed to address it.
3
Security Architecture and Engineering
~13% of exam · Day 4–53.1 — Security Models (Bell-LaPadula, Biba, Clark-Wilson & Others)
| Model | Focus | Key Rules | Mnemonic |
|---|---|---|---|
| Bell-LaPadula | Confidentiality | Simple: No Read Up. Star(*): No Write Down. Strong Star: Read/Write only at own level. | "BLP = don't Look UP, don't write DOWN" |
| Biba | Integrity | Simple: No Read Down. Star(*): No Write Up. Invocation: No call to higher integrity. | "BIBA = don't read DOWN, don't write UP" (opposite of BLP) |
| Clark-Wilson | Integrity (commercial) | Well-formed transactions through access triple: Subject → Program(TP) → Object(CDI). IVPs verify integrity. Separation of duties enforced. | "Clark-Wilson = Commercial integrity with middleman" |
| Brewer-Nash | Conflict of Interest | Chinese Wall model; dynamically prevents access to conflicting data sets | "Consultant can't see both Coke and Pepsi" |
| Graham-Denning | Access Control | 8 primitive rules for creating/deleting objects and subjects, granting/revoking access | — |
| Harrison-Ruzzo-Ullman (HRU) | Access Control | Extension of Graham-Denning; formal access rights model; undecidability of safety | — |
| Lipner | Confidentiality + Integrity | Combines Bell-LaPadula and Biba in a practical implementation | — |
| Take-Grant | Access Rights | Graph-based model; Take, Grant, Create, Remove operations | — |
Exam Tip: Bell-LaPadula enforces CONFIDENTIALITY (military classification, "read down/write up"). Biba enforces INTEGRITY (exact opposite: "read up/write down"). Clark-Wilson is for COMMERCIAL integrity using well-formed transactions and separation of duties.
3.2 — System Architecture: TCB, Reference Monitor, Protection Rings
Trusted Computing Base (TCB)
- The totality of hardware, firmware, and software that enforces the security policy.
- Everything inside the TCB is trusted; everything outside is untrusted.
- Security Perimeter — The boundary between the TCB and the rest of the system.
Reference Monitor & Security Kernel
- Reference Monitor — Abstract concept; mediates all access between subjects and objects.
- Security Kernel — Hardware/software/firmware implementation of the reference monitor.
- Must be: Always invoked (complete mediation), Tamperproof (cannot be bypassed), Verifiable (small enough to be formally proven).
CPU Protection Rings
| Ring | Level | Components |
|---|---|---|
| Ring 0 | Highest privilege (Kernel mode) | OS kernel, security kernel |
| Ring 1 | OS services | OS components, device drivers |
| Ring 2 | I/O drivers | Device drivers, utilities |
| Ring 3 | Lowest privilege (User mode) | User applications, processes |
Processor Modes
- Supervisor / Privileged Mode (Ring 0) — Full access to hardware; executes privileged instructions.
- User Mode (Ring 3) — Limited access; must request services from kernel via system calls.
Security Architecture Concepts
- Defense in Depth — Multiple layers of security controls (layered defense).
- Least Privilege — Subjects receive minimum necessary permissions.
- Separation of Duties — Critical tasks split among multiple individuals.
- Fail-Secure / Fail-Safe — System defaults to secure state on failure (denies access).
- Fail-Open — System allows access on failure (e.g., fire doors that unlock).
- Zero Trust Architecture — "Never trust, always verify"; verify every access request regardless of location.
3.3 — Cryptography: Symmetric, Asymmetric, Hashing & PKI
Symmetric Encryption (Shared Secret Key)
- Same key encrypts and decrypts; fast; key distribution challenge.
- Key count for n users = n(n−1)/2.
| Algorithm | Key Size | Type | Status |
|---|---|---|---|
| AES | 128/192/256 bit | Block (128-bit blocks) | Current standard (NIST) |
| DES | 56 bit | Block (64-bit blocks) | Deprecated — easily broken |
| 3DES | 112/168 bit | Block (64-bit blocks) | Deprecated — slow |
| Blowfish | 32-448 bit | Block (64-bit blocks) | Legacy; replaced by Twofish |
| Twofish | 128/192/256 bit | Block (128-bit blocks) | AES finalist |
| RC4 | 40-2048 bit | Stream | Deprecated — biases found |
| ChaCha20 | 256 bit | Stream | Modern; used in TLS 1.3 |
Block Cipher Modes
- ECB — Electronic Codebook; same plaintext → same ciphertext; NOT secure for most uses.
- CBC — Cipher Block Chaining; uses IV; each block depends on previous; common.
- CTR — Counter mode; turns block cipher into stream cipher; parallelizable.
- GCM — Galois/Counter Mode; encryption + authentication (AEAD); recommended.
Asymmetric Encryption (Public/Private Key Pair)
- Different keys for encryption and decryption; slower; solves key distribution.
- Encrypt with recipient's public key → only their private key decrypts (confidentiality).
- Sign with sender's private key → anyone can verify with public key (authentication, integrity, non-repudiation).
- Key count for n users = 2n.
| Algorithm | Based On | Capabilities |
|---|---|---|
| RSA | Factoring large primes | Encryption + digital signatures + key exchange |
| ECC | Elliptic curve discrete logarithm | Same security with smaller keys (256-bit ECC ≈ 3072-bit RSA) |
| Diffie-Hellman | Discrete logarithm | Key exchange ONLY (not encryption or signing); vulnerable to MITM |
| El Gamal | Based on DH | Encryption + signatures; doubles ciphertext size |
| DSA | Discrete logarithm | Digital signatures ONLY (not encryption) |
Hashing (One-Way Functions)
| Algorithm | Output Size | Status |
|---|---|---|
| MD5 | 128 bits | Broken — collision attacks found |
| SHA-1 | 160 bits | Deprecated — collision demonstrated (2017) |
| SHA-2 (SHA-256/512) | 256/512 bits | Current standard; widely used |
| SHA-3 (Keccak) | 224/256/384/512 | Latest NIST standard; different internal structure (sponge) |
| HMAC | Varies (uses underlying hash) | Hash + secret key = authentication + integrity |
PKI (Public Key Infrastructure)
- CA (Certificate Authority) — Issues, signs, and revokes digital certificates; root of trust.
- RA (Registration Authority) — Verifies identity before CA issues certificate.
- CRL (Certificate Revocation List) — List of revoked certificates; downloaded periodically.
- OCSP (Online Certificate Status Protocol) — Real-time certificate validation (better than CRL).
- X.509 — Standard format for digital certificates (version, serial, issuer, subject, public key, validity, signature).
- Certificate Pinning — Associating a host with its expected certificate to prevent MITM.
- Key Escrow — Third party holds copy of encryption keys (controversial; enables recovery or lawful intercept).
Digital Signature Process: 1) Sender hashes the message → 2) Encrypts hash with sender's PRIVATE key → 3) Recipient decrypts hash with sender's PUBLIC key → 4) Recipient hashes received message and compares. Match = integrity + authentication + non-repudiation.
3.4 — Cloud Security, Virtualization & Evaluation Criteria
Cloud Service Models
| Model | Customer Manages | Provider Manages | Examples |
|---|---|---|---|
| IaaS | OS, middleware, apps, data | Virtualization, servers, storage, network | AWS EC2, Azure VMs |
| PaaS | Applications, data | OS, middleware, runtime, infrastructure | Azure App Service, Heroku |
| SaaS | Data, user access config | Everything else | Office 365, Salesforce |
Cloud Deployment Models
- Public — Shared infrastructure (AWS, Azure, GCP); multi-tenant.
- Private — Dedicated to one organization; on-prem or hosted.
- Community — Shared among organizations with common goals (government, healthcare).
- Hybrid — Mix of public and private; data can move between.
Virtualization Security
- Hypervisor Types: Type 1 (bare-metal: ESXi, Hyper-V) — more secure. Type 2 (hosted: VirtualBox, VMware Workstation) — less secure.
- VM Escape — Attacker breaks out of VM to access hypervisor or other VMs (critical threat).
- VM Sprawl — Uncontrolled proliferation of VMs leading to unmanaged/unpatched instances.
- Containers — Lightweight OS-level virtualization (Docker, Kubernetes); share kernel; smaller attack surface than VMs but less isolation.
Common Criteria (ISO 15408)
| EAL Level | Assurance | Testing |
|---|---|---|
| EAL 1 | Functionally tested | Minimal |
| EAL 2 | Structurally tested | Basic |
| EAL 3 | Methodically tested and checked | Moderate |
| EAL 4 | Methodically designed, tested, and reviewed | High (most common for commercial) |
| EAL 5 | Semiformally designed and tested | Very high |
| EAL 6 | Semiformally verified design and tested | Extensive |
| EAL 7 | Formally verified design and tested | Most rigorous |
Physical Security & Fire Suppression
| Fire Class | Material | Suppression Agent |
|---|---|---|
| A | Common combustibles | Water, soda acid |
| B | Flammable liquids | CO₂, FM-200, dry chemical |
| C | Electrical equipment | CO₂, FM-200, Novec 1230 |
| D | Combustible metals | Dry powder ONLY |
| K | Kitchen oils/grease | Wet chemical |
Data Center: Temperature 64-75°F (18-24°C), Humidity 40-60%. Positive air pressure prevents contaminants. Hot/cold aisle containment for efficiency. FM-200 or Novec 1230 for fire suppression (safe for electronics and people).
Domain 3 — Practice Questions (10)
Q1. The Bell-LaPadula model's Star (*) property states:
Bell-LaPadula Star (*) Property: "No Write Down." A subject cannot write to a lower classification level, preventing leakage of classified data to lower levels.
Q2. Which security model uses well-formed transactions and separation of duties to enforce integrity?
Clark-Wilson enforces integrity through well-formed transactions (access triples: Subject → TP → CDI) and separation of duties. It's designed for commercial environments.
Q3. How many symmetric keys are needed for 10 people to communicate securely?
Symmetric key formula: n(n-1)/2 = 10(9)/2 = 45 keys.
Q4. Which algorithm provides key exchange ONLY and is vulnerable to MITM attacks?
Diffie-Hellman provides key exchange only (not encryption or signing) and is vulnerable to man-in-the-middle attacks because it doesn't authenticate participants.
Q5. In a cloud deployment, who manages the OS and middleware in a PaaS model?
In PaaS, the cloud provider manages the OS, middleware, and runtime. The customer is responsible only for applications and data.
Q6. A Type 1 hypervisor runs directly on:
Type 1 (bare-metal) hypervisors run directly on hardware without a host OS. Examples include VMware ESXi and Microsoft Hyper-V. They are more secure than Type 2.
Q7. Which block cipher mode should NOT be used because identical plaintext blocks produce identical ciphertext blocks?
ECB (Electronic Codebook) encrypts each block independently, so identical plaintext blocks produce identical ciphertext blocks, leaking patterns. Never use ECB for anything beyond single-block encryption.
Q8. What provides authentication, integrity, AND non-repudiation?
Digital signatures provide all three: authentication (verifies sender), integrity (detects changes via hash), and non-repudiation (only sender's private key could have created it). HMAC provides authentication and integrity but NOT non-repudiation since the shared secret is known by both parties.
Q9. The security kernel must meet which three requirements?
The security kernel (implementation of the reference monitor) must be: 1) Always invoked (complete mediation), 2) Tamperproof, 3) Verifiable (small enough to be proven correct).
Q10. Which fire suppression agent replaced Halon and is safe for occupied data centers?
FM-200 (and Novec 1230) are modern Halon replacements. They're safe for people in occupied spaces and won't damage electronics, unlike CO₂ (which can asphyxiate) or water.
4
Communication and Network Security
~13% of exam · Day 6–74.1 — OSI Model, TCP/IP & Network Fundamentals
OSI 7-Layer Model
| # | Layer | Function | Protocols | Data Unit | Devices |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| 7 | Application | User interface & network services | HTTP, FTP, SMTP, DNS, SNMP, LDAP | Data | Gateway, proxy |
| 6 | Presentation | Data format, encryption, compression | SSL/TLS, JPEG, MPEG, ASCII, EBCDIC | Data | — |
| 5 | Session | Session establishment, management, termination | NetBIOS, RPC, PPTP, SIP | Data | — |
| 4 | Transport | End-to-end delivery, error recovery, flow control | TCP (reliable), UDP (fast) | Segment | — |
| 3 | Network | Routing, logical addressing | IP, ICMP, IGMP, IPSec | Packet | Router, L3 switch |
| 2 | Data Link | Framing, MAC addressing, error detection | Ethernet, PPP, ARP, Wi-Fi (802.11) | Frame | Switch, bridge, NIC |
| 1 | Physical | Physical transmission (electrical, optical, radio) | Ethernet cables, fiber, radio | Bits | Hub, repeater, cable |
Mnemonics: Top-down: All People Seem To Need Data Processing. Bottom-up: Please Do Not Throw Sausage Pizza Away.
TCP/IP Model (4 Layers)
| TCP/IP Layer | OSI Equivalent |
|---|---|
| Application | Layers 5, 6, 7 |
| Transport | Layer 4 |
| Internet | Layer 3 |
| Network Access / Link | Layers 1, 2 |
TCP vs. UDP
- TCP — Connection-oriented; 3-way handshake (SYN → SYN-ACK → ACK); reliable delivery; flow control; sequencing. Used for HTTP, FTP, SSH, SMTP.
- UDP — Connectionless; no handshake; faster but unreliable; no retransmission. Used for DNS, DHCP, SNMP, VoIP, streaming.
IPv4 vs. IPv6
- IPv4 — 32-bit addresses (4.3 billion); dotted decimal (192.168.1.1); NAT to extend address space.
- IPv6 — 128-bit addresses (virtually unlimited); hex notation (2001:0db8::1); IPSec built-in; no NAT needed; no broadcast (uses multicast).
4.2 — Network Devices, Protocols & Ports
Network Security Devices
- Firewall Types: Packet filtering (Layer 3/4) → Stateful inspection (tracks connections) → Application proxy (Layer 7, deep inspection) → NGFW (combines all + IPS + DPI + threat intelligence).
- IDS/IPS: Network-based (NIDS/NIPS) and Host-based (HIDS/HIPS). Detection methods: Signature-based (known patterns), Anomaly-based (baseline deviations), Heuristic (behavioral rules).
- WAF — Web Application Firewall; Layer 7; protects against OWASP Top 10 (SQLi, XSS, CSRF).
- NAC (Network Access Control) — Verifies device compliance before granting access (802.1X, posture checking).
- SIEM — Security Information & Event Management; aggregates and correlates logs from multiple sources.
- Proxy Server — Intermediary for requests; can filter, cache, and anonymize. Forward proxy (client-side), reverse proxy (server-side).
Essential Port Numbers
| Port | Protocol | Port | Protocol |
|---|---|---|---|
| 20/21 | FTP (data/control) | 443 | HTTPS |
| 22 | SSH / SCP / SFTP | 445 | SMB (Microsoft file sharing) |
| 23 | Telnet (insecure) | 514 | Syslog |
| 25 | SMTP (email send) | 636 | LDAPS (secure LDAP) |
| 53 | DNS | 993 | IMAPS |
| 67/68 | DHCP | 995 | POP3S |
| 69 | TFTP | 1812/1813 | RADIUS (auth/acct) |
| 80 | HTTP | 3389 | RDP |
| 110 | POP3 | 161/162 | SNMP (query/trap) |
| 143 | IMAP | 49 | TACACS+ |
| 389 | LDAP | 88 | Kerberos |
4.3 — VPN, IPSec, Wireless Security & Network Attacks
IPSec
| Component | Function |
|---|---|
| AH (Authentication Header) | Integrity + authentication only (no encryption); protocol 51 |
| ESP (Encapsulating Security Payload) | Confidentiality + integrity + authentication; protocol 50 |
| Transport Mode | Encrypts only payload; original IP header preserved (end-to-end) |
| Tunnel Mode | Encrypts entire original packet + new header (gateway-to-gateway) |
| IKE (Internet Key Exchange) | Negotiates Security Associations (SAs); Phase 1 (ISAKMP SA) + Phase 2 (IPSec SA) |
Wireless Security Standards
| Standard | Encryption | Auth Protocol | Status |
|---|---|---|---|
| WEP | RC4 (24-bit IV) | Open/Shared Key | Broken — never use |
| WPA | TKIP + RC4 | PSK or 802.1X | Deprecated |
| WPA2 | AES-CCMP | PSK or 802.1X (Enterprise) | Current standard |
| WPA3 | AES-GCMP / SAE | SAE (replaces PSK) or 802.1X | Latest; forward secrecy; resistant to offline dictionary attacks |
Common Network Attacks
- ARP Spoofing / Poisoning — Attacker sends fake ARP replies to associate their MAC with a legitimate IP. Defense: Dynamic ARP Inspection (DAI), static ARP entries.
- DNS Poisoning / Spoofing — Corrupts DNS cache; redirects traffic to malicious sites. Defense: DNSSEC, DNS monitoring.
- MITM — Attacker intercepts communication between two parties. Defense: encryption, certificate pinning, mutual authentication.
- SYN Flood — Sends massive SYN requests without completing handshake. Defense: SYN cookies, rate limiting, firewall rules.
- Smurf Attack — ICMP broadcast amplification. Defense: disable directed broadcasts, ingress filtering.
- Fraggle Attack — UDP broadcast amplification (similar to Smurf). Defense: same as Smurf.
- VLAN Hopping — Double tagging to reach other VLANs. Defense: disable auto-trunking, set native VLAN to unused.
- Rogue AP / Evil Twin — Fake access point. Defense: WIDS, 802.1X, certificate-based auth.
- MAC Flooding — Overwhelms switch CAM table, forcing it to act as a hub. Defense: port security.
Network Segmentation
- VLAN — Logical segmentation at Layer 2; separate broadcast domains.
- DMZ — Screened subnet hosting public-facing services between two firewalls.
- Microsegmentation — Zero Trust approach; granular east-west traffic controls between workloads.
- SDN (Software-Defined Networking) — Separates control plane from data plane; centralized management.
Domain 4 — Practice Questions (10)
Q1. At which OSI layer does a router operate?
Routers operate at Layer 3 (Network), using IP addresses to route packets between networks.
Q2. IPSec ESP provides which of the following?
ESP (Encapsulating Security Payload) provides confidentiality (encryption), integrity, and authentication. AH provides only integrity and authentication.
Q3. Which wireless standard uses SAE to replace PSK and provides forward secrecy?
WPA3 uses SAE (Simultaneous Authentication of Equals) which replaces PSK and provides forward secrecy, making it resistant to offline dictionary attacks.
Q4. An attacker sends fake ARP replies to associate their MAC address with the default gateway IP. This attack is:
ARP poisoning (spoofing) involves sending fake ARP replies to map the attacker's MAC address to a legitimate IP, enabling MITM attacks.
Q5. Which port does Kerberos use?
Kerberos uses port 88. TACACS+ uses 49, LDAPS uses 636, and RADIUS uses 1812.
Q6. A DMZ is BEST described as:
A DMZ is a screened subnet that sits between the internal network and the internet, typically hosting public-facing services like web and mail servers.
Q7. In IPSec Tunnel Mode, what is encrypted?
Tunnel mode encrypts the entire original packet (header + payload) and adds a new IP header. Transport mode encrypts only the payload.
Q8. Which IDS detection method compares traffic against known attack patterns?
Signature-based detection compares traffic against a database of known attack signatures. It's effective for known threats but cannot detect zero-day attacks.
Q9. TCP uses a three-way handshake. The correct sequence is:
TCP three-way handshake: Client sends SYN → Server responds with SYN-ACK → Client sends ACK. Connection established.
Q10. Which attack overwhelms a switch's CAM table, causing it to flood all traffic?
MAC flooding overwhelms the switch's CAM (Content Addressable Memory) table with fake MAC addresses, forcing it to broadcast all traffic like a hub, enabling sniffing.
5
Identity and Access Management (IAM)
~13% of exam · Day 75.1 — Authentication Factors, Biometrics & SSO Technologies
Authentication Factors
| Factor | Type | Examples |
|---|---|---|
| Type 1 | Something you know | Password, PIN, passphrase, security questions |
| Type 2 | Something you have | Smart card, OTP token, phone (SMS/app), FIDO key |
| Type 3 | Something you are | Fingerprint, retina, iris, voice, face, palm vein |
| Type 4 | Somewhere you are | GPS location, IP geolocation |
| Type 5 | Something you do | Keystroke dynamics, gait analysis, signature |
MFA requires two or more different factor types. Password + PIN = single factor (both Type 1). Password + fingerprint = true MFA (Type 1 + Type 3).
Biometric Errors
- FRR (Type I error) — False Rejection Rate; denies a legitimate user. Too sensitive.
- FAR (Type II error) — False Acceptance Rate; admits an impostor. Not sensitive enough.
- CER / EER — Crossover/Equal Error Rate; where FRR = FAR. Lower CER = more accurate system.
- Most biometrics: retina scan is most accurate; fingerprint is most accepted by users.
SSO Technologies
| Technology | Protocol | Key Details |
|---|---|---|
| Kerberos | Ticket-based | Uses KDC (AS + TGS); symmetric encryption; port 88; TGT + Service Tickets; timestamps for replay protection. Weaknesses: single point of failure (KDC), time sync required. |
| SAML 2.0 | XML-based | Web SSO; IdP (Identity Provider) asserts identity to SP (Service Provider); uses assertions (authentication, authorization, attribute). |
| OAuth 2.0 | Authorization | Delegates access without sharing credentials; provides access tokens; NOT authentication. Used by APIs. |
| OpenID Connect | Authentication | Authentication layer built ON TOP of OAuth 2.0; provides ID tokens (JWT). "Login with Google/Facebook." |
| RADIUS | AAA | Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service; encrypts ONLY password; UDP 1812/1813; combines auth & authorization. |
| TACACS+ | AAA | Full packet encryption; TCP port 49; separates authentication, authorization, and accounting. Preferred for device admin. |
5.2 — Access Control Models & Identity Lifecycle
Access Control Models
| Model | Decision Made By | Description | Use Case |
|---|---|---|---|
| DAC | Resource owner | Owner sets permissions via ACLs; identity-based; most common in file systems | Windows NTFS, Linux file permissions |
| MAC | System (labels) | System enforces based on sensitivity labels and clearances; mandatory rules | Military, classified government systems |
| RBAC | Administrator (roles) | Access based on job role/function; roles mapped to permissions; most common enterprise | ERP systems, corporate apps |
| ABAC | Policy engine (attributes) | Access based on attributes of subject, object, action, and environment. Most granular & flexible. | Cloud, dynamic environments, XACML |
| Rule-Based | Rules engine | IF-THEN rules applied globally (time of day, IP range, etc.) | Firewalls, ACLs, router configs |
Identity Lifecycle Management
- Provisioning — Creating accounts, assigning initial permissions based on role.
- Access Review / Recertification — Periodic review (quarterly/annually) to ensure access is still appropriate.
- Privilege Creep — Accumulation of unnecessary access over time; detected during access reviews.
- Revocation — Removing specific permissions when role changes.
- Deprovisioning — Disabling/deleting accounts upon termination; must be immediate for security.
Federated Identity & Zero Trust
- Federation — Users authenticate once at their home IdP and access services at multiple SPs across organizations via trust relationships.
- Zero Trust — "Never trust, always verify." Authenticate every request; least privilege; micro-segmentation; continuous verification. Guided by NIST SP 800-207.
- JIT (Just-In-Time) Access — Grant privileges only when needed, for the minimum duration. Part of zero trust and PAM strategies.
- PAM (Privileged Access Management) — Special controls for admin/root accounts: vaulting, session recording, MFA, approval workflows.
Domain 5 — Practice Questions (10)
Q1. Using a password and a smart card together is an example of:
Password (something you know - Type 1) + smart card (something you have - Type 2) = multi-factor authentication using two different factor types.
Q2. The Crossover Error Rate (CER) represents the point where:
CER (or EER) is the point where FRR equals FAR. A lower CER indicates a more accurate biometric system.
Q3. Which access control model enforces access based on sensitivity labels assigned by the system?
MAC (Mandatory Access Control) uses system-enforced labels (classification levels and clearances). Users cannot override these controls, unlike DAC.
Q4. Kerberos authentication uses which type of encryption?
Kerberos primarily uses symmetric encryption for ticket encryption and session keys. The KDC shares secret keys with each principal.
Q5. TACACS+ differs from RADIUS in that TACACS+:
TACACS+ encrypts the full packet (vs. RADIUS which encrypts only the password), uses TCP (vs. UDP), and separates authentication, authorization, and accounting functions.
Q6. OAuth 2.0 provides:
OAuth 2.0 is an authorization framework — it delegates access without sharing credentials. OpenID Connect adds authentication on top of OAuth 2.0.
Q7. Privilege creep is BEST mitigated by:
Privilege creep is detected and remediated through periodic access reviews (recertification), where managers validate that each user's access is still appropriate for their current role.
Q8. Which access control model is MOST flexible for cloud environments with dynamic access requirements?
ABAC (Attribute-Based Access Control) evaluates multiple attributes (user role, time, location, device, resource type) making it the most flexible for dynamic cloud environments.
Q9. A Kerberos weakness is that it relies on:
The KDC (Key Distribution Center) is a single point of failure in Kerberos. If it goes down, no one can authenticate. It also requires strict time synchronization across all systems.
Q10. "Never trust, always verify" describes which security approach?
Zero Trust Architecture assumes no implicit trust. Every access request must be verified regardless of source location (internal or external). Guided by NIST SP 800-207.
6
Security Assessment and Testing
~12% of exam · Day 86.1 — Vulnerability Assessment & Penetration Testing
Vulnerability Assessment vs. Pen Test
| Aspect | Vulnerability Assessment | Penetration Test |
|---|---|---|
| Goal | Identify & catalog vulnerabilities | Exploit vulnerabilities; prove impact |
| Approach | Automated scanning, passive | Manual & automated, active exploitation |
| Scope | Broad — scan everything | Targeted — specific systems/goals |
| Output | List of vulnerabilities with severity | Proof of exploitation, attack paths |
| Frequency | Regular (monthly/quarterly) | Annual or on significant changes |
Vulnerability Scoring
- CVSS — Common Vulnerability Scoring System (0-10); Base, Temporal, Environmental scores.
- CVE — Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures; unique identifier (e.g., CVE-2024-12345).
- CWE — Common Weakness Enumeration; categorizes software weakness types.
- NVD — National Vulnerability Database; enriches CVEs with CVSS scores and analysis.
Pen Test Types & Phases
- Black Box — Zero knowledge (external attacker simulation).
- White Box — Full knowledge (source code, architecture, credentials).
- Gray Box — Partial knowledge (insider perspective).
- Phases: 1. Planning & Scoping (RoE) → 2. Reconnaissance (OSINT, passive/active) → 3. Scanning & Enumeration → 4. Gaining Access (exploitation) → 5. Maintaining Access → 6. Covering Tracks → 7. Analysis & Reporting
Rules of Engagement (RoE) — Must be signed before testing begins. Defines: scope, authorized targets, testing window, techniques allowed, emergency contacts, liability, data handling, and reporting requirements.
6.2 — Audits, SOC Reports & Log Management
SOC Reports (AICPA)
| Report | Focus | Type I vs. Type II | Audience |
|---|---|---|---|
| SOC 1 | Financial reporting controls (ICFR) | Type I: design at a point in time. Type II: design + operating effectiveness over a period (usually 6-12 months). | Auditors, management |
| SOC 2 | Trust Service Criteria: Security, Availability, Processing Integrity, Confidentiality, Privacy | Same distinction | Management, specific users (restricted) |
| SOC 3 | Same as SOC 2 but general-use summary | General report only | Public / anyone |
SIEM & Log Management
- SIEM — Aggregates, normalizes, correlates, and analyzes logs from multiple sources in real-time.
- Log sources: Firewalls, IDS/IPS, OS events, application logs, authentication systems, endpoint agents.
- Best practices: Centralized logging, log integrity protection (write-once/WORM), time synchronization (NTP), defined retention policies (based on legal/compliance requirements), log review procedures.
Software Testing Types
| Test Type | Description |
|---|---|
| SAST | Static analysis of source code without execution (white-box); finds coding errors early |
| DAST | Tests running application (black-box); simulates attacks against deployed app |
| IAST | Combines SAST + DAST; instruments running app for deeper analysis |
| SCA | Software Composition Analysis; scans third-party libraries for known vulnerabilities |
| Fuzzing | Sends random/malformed inputs to find crashes, memory leaks, and unhandled exceptions |
| Regression | Ensures code changes don't break existing functionality |
| Code Review | Manual peer review; Fagan inspection (formal process) |
Domain 6 — Practice Questions (10)
Q1. A pen tester with no prior knowledge of the target systems is performing a:
Black box testing gives the tester zero knowledge of the target, simulating an external attacker with no insider information.
Q2. SOC 2 Type II evaluates:
SOC 2 Type II evaluates both the design AND operating effectiveness of controls based on Trust Service Criteria over a defined period (typically 6-12 months).
Q3. DAST testing is characterized by:
DAST (Dynamic Application Security Testing) tests a running application from the outside (black-box), simulating attacks against the deployed application.
Q4. What document must be signed before a penetration test begins?
The Rules of Engagement must be agreed upon and signed before any penetration testing begins, defining scope, authorized actions, timing, and legal protections.
Q5. Fuzz testing works by:
Fuzz testing (fuzzing) sends random, malformed, or unexpected inputs to an application to trigger crashes, memory leaks, or unhandled exceptions that reveal vulnerabilities.
Q6. CVSS scores range from:
CVSS (Common Vulnerability Scoring System) uses a numeric scale from 0.0 to 10.0, where 10.0 is the most critical.
Q7. Which analysis type scans third-party libraries and dependencies for known vulnerabilities?
SCA (Software Composition Analysis) identifies open-source and third-party components in an application and checks them against known vulnerability databases.
Q8. A SOC 3 report is designed for:
SOC 3 is a general-use report suitable for public distribution — a summary version of SOC 2 without the detailed testing results.
Q9. The FIRST step in a penetration test is:
Planning and scoping (including signing the RoE) is always the first step before any reconnaissance or scanning begins.
Q10. KRI stands for:
Key Risk Indicators (KRIs) are early warning metrics that signal increasing risk levels before incidents occur.
7
Security Operations
~13% of exam · Day 97.1 — Incident Response, Evidence & Forensics
NIST IR Lifecycle (SP 800-61)
- 1. Preparation — Policies, CSIRT formation, tools, training, communication plans, management support.
- 2. Detection & Analysis — Monitoring, SIEM alerts, triage, classification (severity/priority), notification chains.
- 3. Containment, Eradication & Recovery
- Containment: Short-term (isolate affected systems) + Long-term (apply temporary fixes).
- Eradication: Remove root cause (malware, compromised accounts, vulnerabilities).
- Recovery: Restore systems from clean backups; verify; monitor for recurrence.
- 4. Post-Incident Activity — Lessons learned meeting (within 2 weeks); root cause analysis; update procedures; evidence retention.
Evidence Handling
- Chain of Custody — Documented record of who handled evidence, when, and what they did. Must be unbroken for legal admissibility.
- Evidence Types: Real/Physical (tangible objects) → Documentary (logs, documents — requires authentication) → Testimonial (expert/witness statements) → Demonstrative (charts, models).
- Best Evidence Rule — Original documents preferred over copies.
- Hearsay Rule — Secondhand info generally not admissible (computer logs are an exception under business records rule).
Digital Forensics
- Order of Volatility (most → least): CPU registers/cache → RAM → Swap/page file → HDD/SSD → Removable media → Network traffic → Backup tapes → Printed output.
- Forensic Image — Bit-for-bit copy (dd, FTK Imager); always use a write blocker.
- Process: Identify → Collect (preserve evidence, chain of custody) → Examine → Analyze → Report.
- Legal Holds / Litigation Holds — Requirement to preserve all potentially relevant evidence when litigation is anticipated.
7.2 — Disaster Recovery, Backup & High Availability
Recovery Sites
| Type | Equipment | Data | RTO | Cost |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| Hot Site | Fully equipped, mirrors production | Real-time replication | Minutes–hours | Highest |
| Warm Site | Partial equipment | Needs data restoration | Hours–days | Moderate |
| Cold Site | Empty facility (power, HVAC, connectivity) | Must procure everything | Days–weeks | Lowest |
| Mobile Site | Portable/container-based | Deployable | Hours–days | Moderate |
| Cloud / DRaaS | On-demand infrastructure | Cloud replication | Minutes–hours | Pay-per-use |
Backup Strategies
| Type | What's Backed Up | Backup Speed | Restore Speed | Archive Bit |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| Full | Everything | Slowest | Fastest | Clears all |
| Incremental | Changed since LAST backup (any type) | Fastest | Slowest (need full + all incrementals) | Clears changed |
| Differential | Changed since last FULL backup | Moderate | Moderate (need full + latest differential) | Does NOT clear |
RAID Levels
| RAID | Method | Min Disks | Fault Tolerance | Performance |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| 0 | Striping | 2 | None | Best read/write |
| 1 | Mirroring | 2 | 1 disk failure | Good read |
| 5 | Striping + distributed parity | 3 | 1 disk failure | Good |
| 6 | Striping + double parity | 4 | 2 disk failures | Good |
| 10 (1+0) | Mirrored stripes | 4 | 1 per mirror pair | Excellent |
7.3 — Change, Configuration & Patch Management
Change Management
- Request → Impact Analysis → Approval (CAB — Change Advisory Board) → Test → Implement → Verify → Document.
- Emergency changes still require after-the-fact documentation and review.
- Rollback plan must exist for every change.
Configuration Management
- Establish and maintain system baselines (approved configurations).
- CMDB — Tracks all Configuration Items (CIs) and their relationships.
- Tools: Puppet, Chef, Ansible, Terraform (IaC — Infrastructure as Code).
- CIS Benchmarks and DISA STIGs for secure baselines.
Patch Management Cycle
- Monitor (vendor advisories, CVEs) → Evaluate (criticality, applicability) → Test (staging environment) → Approve → Deploy → Verify → Document.
- Prioritize based on CVSS score × asset criticality.
- Virtual patching (WAF/IPS rules) for emergency protection before patch deployment.
Domain 7 — Practice Questions (10)
Q1. The FIRST step in the NIST incident response lifecycle is:
Preparation is always the first phase — establishing the CSIRT, policies, tools, and training before incidents occur.
Q2. Which backup type requires a full backup plus ALL subsequent backups to restore?
Incremental backup restoration requires the last full backup plus every incremental backup taken since then, in order.
Q3. In the order of volatility, which should be collected FIRST?
CPU registers and cache are the most volatile — they disappear instantly when power is lost. Collect the most volatile evidence first.
Q4. RAID 5 requires a minimum of how many disks?
RAID 5 (striping with distributed parity) requires a minimum of 3 disks and can survive 1 disk failure.
Q5. A hot site provides:
A hot site is fully equipped with hardware, software, and real-time data replication, providing the fastest recovery (minutes to hours) at the highest cost.
Q6. Chain of custody ensures:
Chain of custody documents who handled evidence, when, and what actions were taken, ensuring evidence integrity and admissibility in legal proceedings.
Q7. The Change Advisory Board (CAB) is responsible for:
The CAB evaluates change requests, assesses impact and risk, and approves or denies changes to the production environment.
Q8. A write blocker is used during forensics to:
Write blockers prevent any writes to the original evidence media during forensic imaging, preserving evidence integrity.
Q9. Post-incident lessons learned meetings should occur:
Lessons learned should be conducted after every incident, ideally within two weeks while details are still fresh, to improve future response.
Q10. Virtual patching is BEST described as:
Virtual patching uses WAF or IPS rules to block exploitation of a known vulnerability as a temporary measure until the vendor patch can be properly tested and deployed.
8
Software Development Security
~11% of exam · Day 108.1 — SDLC, Development Models & Secure Coding
SDLC Phases with Security Activities
| Phase | Security Activity |
|---|---|
| Requirements | Security requirements, abuse cases, risk assessment, compliance mapping |
| Design | Threat modeling (STRIDE), security architecture, design review |
| Implementation | Secure coding standards, SAST, code review, secret management |
| Testing | DAST, IAST, fuzzing, pen testing, regression testing |
| Deployment | Configuration hardening, vulnerability scanning, change management |
| Maintenance | Patch management, monitoring, incident response, periodic reviews |
Development Models
| Model | Approach | Best For |
|---|---|---|
| Waterfall | Sequential; no backtracking; heavy documentation | Well-defined, stable requirements |
| V-Model | Waterfall + testing at each phase; verification & validation | High-assurance systems |
| Agile / Scrum | Iterative sprints (2-4 weeks); adaptive; continuous feedback | Rapidly changing requirements |
| Spiral | Risk-driven; iterative with risk analysis at each cycle | Large, high-risk projects |
| DevOps | Dev + Ops; CI/CD pipelines; automation; shared responsibility | Continuous delivery |
| DevSecOps | DevOps + integrated security at every stage; "shift left" | Modern secure development |
| RAD | Rapid prototyping; heavy user involvement; iterative | Quick turnaround projects |
Maturity Models
- CMMI: Initial (chaotic) → Managed (repeatable) → Defined (standardized) → Quantitatively Managed (metrics-driven) → Optimizing (continuous improvement).
- SAMM (OWASP) — Software Assurance Maturity Model; measures security practices across governance, design, implementation, verification, operations.
8.2 — Application Attacks, OWASP Top 10 & Database Security
Common Application Attacks
| Attack | Description | Defense |
|---|---|---|
| SQL Injection | Injects SQL into input fields to read/modify database | Parameterized queries, stored procedures, input validation, least-privilege DB accounts |
| XSS (Cross-Site Scripting) | Injects malicious scripts into web pages viewed by others | Output encoding, CSP headers, input sanitization. Types: Reflected, Stored, DOM-based |
| CSRF | Forces authenticated user to execute unwanted actions | Anti-CSRF tokens, SameSite cookies, referer validation |
| Buffer Overflow | Writes beyond buffer boundaries to execute arbitrary code | Bounds checking, ASLR, DEP/NX bit, safe languages (Rust, Go), stack canaries |
| TOCTOU | Race condition between check and use of a resource | File locking, atomic operations, mutex |
| SSRF | Server-Side Request Forgery; forces server to make requests to internal resources | URL allowlisting, network segmentation, input validation |
| XXE | XML External Entity; exploits XML parsers to read files, SSRF, DoS | Disable external entity processing, use JSON instead |
| Insecure Deserialization | Exploits deserialization of untrusted data for RCE | Input validation, allowlisting classes, integrity checks |
| Directory Traversal | Uses ../ to access files outside intended directory | Input validation, canonicalization, chroot jails |
Input validation is the #1 defense against injection attacks. Always validate on the SERVER SIDE — client-side validation can be bypassed. Prefer allowlisting (known-good) over blocklisting (known-bad).
Database Security
- ACID Properties: Atomicity (all or nothing), Consistency (valid state transitions), Isolation (concurrent transactions don't interfere), Durability (committed data survives failures).
- Views — Virtual tables restricting what data users see (logical access control).
- Polyinstantiation — Multiple rows with same primary key at different classification levels.
- Aggregation — Combining non-sensitive data to derive sensitive conclusions.
- Inference — Deducing restricted information from permitted data.
- Normalization — 1NF (eliminate repeating groups) → 2NF (remove partial dependencies) → 3NF (remove transitive dependencies). Reduces redundancy and anomalies.
DevSecOps Pipeline Security
- Pre-commit: IDE security plugins, secret detection (GitLeaks, TruffleHog).
- Build: SAST, SCA (dependency scanning), container image scanning.
- Test: DAST, IAST, fuzzing, security acceptance tests.
- Deploy: IaC scanning (Terraform, CloudFormation), runtime protection.
- Monitor: RASP, WAF, SIEM, continuous vulnerability scanning.
AI/ML & Emerging Technology Security
- Data Poisoning — Corrupting training data to manipulate model behavior.
- Adversarial Inputs — Crafted inputs that fool ML models into misclassification.
- Model Extraction — Stealing model parameters through systematic queries.
- Prompt Injection — Manipulating LLM behavior through crafted prompts.
- Blockchain: immutable ledger, consensus mechanisms, smart contract vulnerabilities (reentrancy).
Domain 8 — Practice Questions (10)
Q1. The BEST defense against SQL injection is:
Parameterized queries (prepared statements) separate SQL code from data, making injection impossible. WAF and validation are defense-in-depth but parameterized queries are the primary defense.
Q2. "Shift left" in software development means:
"Shift left" means integrating security activities earlier (leftward on a timeline) in the SDLC — during requirements and design rather than waiting until testing or deployment.
Q3. The ACID property that ensures a transaction is "all or nothing" is:
Atomicity ensures that a transaction either completes entirely or rolls back completely — no partial execution.
Q4. A TOCTOU attack exploits:
Time-of-Check to Time-of-Use (TOCTOU) exploits the timing gap between when a condition is verified and when the resource is actually used, allowing the condition to change.
Q5. Which development model is risk-driven with iterative cycles?
The Spiral model is risk-driven, with each iteration including risk analysis. It's ideal for large, complex, high-risk projects.
Q6. Database polyinstantiation is used to:
Polyinstantiation creates multiple records with the same primary key at different classification levels, preventing users from inferring the existence of higher-classified data.
Q7. XSS attacks can be prevented by:
Output encoding converts special characters into safe representations, and CSP headers restrict which scripts can execute, effectively preventing XSS.
Q8. The CMMI Optimizing level represents:
CMMI Level 5 (Optimizing) represents continuous process improvement through quantitative feedback and innovative practices.
Q9. An attacker corrupts an ML model's training data. This is known as:
Data poisoning involves corrupting training data to manipulate the model's behavior, causing it to make incorrect predictions or classifications.
Q10. ASLR (Address Space Layout Randomization) defends against:
ASLR randomizes memory layout, making it much harder for attackers to predict where code and data reside — a key defense against buffer overflow exploitation.